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In article <4547707d@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Tony Orlow <tony@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> Virgil wrote:
> > In article <454632a3@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
> > Tony Orlow <tony@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> >
> >> Virgil wrote:
> >>> In article <4543b0b3@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
> >>> Tony Orlow <tony@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> >>>
> >>>
> >>>> The experiment occurred in [-1,0). Talk of time outside that range is
> >>>> irrelevant. Times before that are imaginary, and times after that are
> >>>> infinite. Only finite times change anything, so if something changes,
> >>>> it's at a finite, negative time.
> >>> Then let us change the experiment to include the insertion into the vase
> >>> of a cube at one minute after noon.
> >>>
> >>> The experiment now ranges over [-1,1].
> >>>
> >>> What are the contents of the vase at times in [0,1), TO?
> >>>
> >> An uncountable number of balls, all infinitely numbered.
> >
> > As none of them exist in the original problem, where does TO get them
> > from?
> >
> > And how does he manage to make them come into existence on his command?
> >
> > Such magic is no part of mathematics.
>
> Coming from you, that's rich!
On the contrary, it is TO who pretends to have a magic wand which he can
wave to make the impossible happen.
The original problem has only 1 ball per 1 finite natural
Each such ball has a time of insertion and a time of removal.
These times are all before noon.
TO then "waves his wand" to pretend to find infinitely unnumbered balls
created out of nothingness and inserted into the vase precisely at noon,
when the original problem has nothing happening at noon.
So who is invoking magic here, those who follow the rules, or TO.
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