Re: Lipschitz and Locally Lipschitz

[The World Wide Wade]

In article 
<1159542238.788430.263750@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
 "Jason Pawloski" <jpawloski@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:

> Let f:(0,1] -> R be defined as f(x) = 1/x, and g:[-1,1] -> R be defined
> as g(x) = (x)^(1/3). Am I right in saying neither of these functions is
> Lipschitz, f(x) is locally Lipschitz, and g(x) is not even locally
> Lipschitz?

Yes.