| Subject: | Re: Every set x equinumerous with a set y disjoint from x? |
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| From: | "MoeBlee" |
| Date: | 28 Aug 2006 17:17:42 -0700 |
| Newsgroups: | sci.logic |
Rupert wrote: > No, David's proof is correct and doesn't use choice. Then I don't understand the proof, since I can't see how it goes through without choice. Would you kindly convey it your own manner? I am very much interested in seeing the theorem proven without choice, regularity, or replacement. Thanks, MoeBlee |
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