sci.logic
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Re: Every set can be ... ordered?

Subject: Re: Every set can be ... ordered?
From: "Rupert"
Date: 27 Aug 2006 14:39:51 -0700
Newsgroups: sci.logic
tchow@xxxxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
> In article <1156564386.008543.306640@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
> Rupert <rupertmccallum@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> >Yes, your proof works as well. Also, {<x,x>|x in X} is always a partial
> >ordering on X, so the result really is trivial.
>
> Isn't it even more trivial than that?  Surely the empty set is always a
> partial ordering on X.
> --
> Tim Chow       tchow-at-alum-dot-mit-dot-edu
> The range of our projectiles---even ... the artillery---however great, will
> never exceed four of those miles of which as many thousand separate us from
> the center of the earth.  ---Galileo, Dialogues Concerning Two New Sciences

It depends whether you mean a sharp partial order or a blunt partial
order. Blunt partial orders are reflexive, sharp partial orders are
irreflexive.


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