| Subject: | Every set can be ... ordered? |
|---|---|
| From: | "MoeBlee" |
| Date: | 25 Aug 2006 16:37:41 -0700 |
| Newsgroups: | sci.logic |
For Z or ZF, "every set can be well ordered" is equivalent to the axiom of choice. But what about "every set can be totally ordered"? Is it a theorem of Z or a theorem of ZF (if so, what is the proof?) or is it independent of Z and independent of ZF (and who proved it such?). And what about "every set can be partially ordered"? MoeBlee |
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