| Subject: | Question about Set Theory |
|---|---|
| From: | "vfilipch" |
| Date: | 3 Aug 2006 09:14:41 -0700 |
| Newsgroups: | sci.logic |
I would like to hear a opinion of prfessionals (because I am not one) on the following question: Is it possible to apply Set Theory for an elment which I would like to define as an "unobserved object"? In other words, for an element for which there is no way to know ANY properties. Thanks in advance. |
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