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Re: biblical languages Re: A question...

Subject: Re: biblical languages Re: A question...
From: Matt Giwer
Date: Sun, 30 Apr 2006 05:31:03 GMT
Newsgroups: sci.archaeology, sci.lang, soc.history.ancient
Matt Giwer wrote:
Martin Edwards wrote:

Matt Giwer wrote:

Now that even the most ardent believers have agreed upon a 6th or 7th c. BC creation they still see things written in styles older than that time where everything should be style of the time of creation. So if the creation time known then the variations are based upon locale not age. This same can be applied to any creation date.

Nope, on refelction I think you are wrong here, but
/it was worth bringing up/.

    It is an attempt at creating the simplest explanation for the facts.

    There are facts which must be accounted for in any explanation.

1 Herodotus traveled the area in the mid 5th c. BC. One of his purposes was the identify the peoples in the new Persian empire. Thus we would expect a mention of people who could be identified as the Judean people. He does not. In itself this leads to no conclusion just a curiosity.
        I forgot a point here.

It is a curiosity because these people should have been well known or at least notorious because they were so poor they could only afford one god. (Sorry Mel. -- History of the World, Part I) Herodotus was looking for different peoples and curiously did not come across a people or a mention of a people who had only one god. In the ancient world this would be like finding a polytheistic nation in Europe. "For you European travelers be certain to visit Italy and see the temples to their gods, 34 at last count."
 It is curious as it is not clear how to explain his failing to mention the most
unique people in all the known world.
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