Re: ?: as an lvalue

[Richard]

Andrey Tarasevich <andreytarasevich@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes:

> Richard wrote:
>> ...
>> But (c?x:y)=v;
>> I dont really know what to say. 
>
> Is there any reason why you believe that the property of "being an
> lvalue" should be necessarily lost in the process of selection from
> two lvalues of the same type?
>
> I mean I'm OK personally with the way it works in C. I just like to
> know what is it exactly in '(c?x:y)=v' that triggers a "I don't really
> know what to say" reaction from some people.

because its not a macro? it returns a value. I dont know the legalise
words but it seems "obvious" enough to me, but again it might be because
I am tainted.